Читать книгу CCNA Routing and Switching Complete Study Guide - Todd Lammle - Страница 5

1. What is the sys-id-ext field in a BPDU used for?

A. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define trunking information between switches.

B. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define VLANs in an STP instance.

C. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an non-Ethernet frame to define EtherChannel options.

D. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define STP root bridges.

2. You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use?

A. EtherChannel

B. PortFast

C. BPDU Channel

D. VLANs

E. EtherBundle

3. What configuration parameters must be configured the same between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three.)

A. Virtual MAC address

B. Port speeds

C. Duplex

D. PortFast enabled

E. Allowed VLAN information

4. You reload a router with a configuration register setting of 0x2101. What will the router do when it reloads?

A. The router enters setup mode.

B. The router enters ROM monitor mode.

C. The router boots the mini-IOS in ROM.

D. The router expands the first IOS in flash memory into RAM.

5. Which of the following commands provides the product ID and serial number of a router?

A. show license

B. show license feature

C. show version

D. show license udi

6. Which command allows you to view the technology options and licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables?

A. show license

B. show license feature

C. show license udi

D. show version

7. Which of the following services provide the operating system and the network?

A. IaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. none of the above

8. You want to send a console message to a syslog server, but you only want to send status messages of 3 and lower. Which of the following commands will you use?

A. logging trap emergencies

B. logging trap errors

C. logging trap debugging

D. logging trap notifications

E. logging trap critical

F. logging trap warnings

G. logging trap alerts

9. When stacking switches, which is true? (Choose 2)

A. The stack is managed as multiple objects, and has a single management IP address

B. The stack is managed as a single object, and has a single management IP address

C. The master switch is chosen when you configure the first switches master algorithm to on

D. The master switch is elected form one of the stack member switches

10. You need to connect to a remote IPv6 server in your virtual server farm. You can connect to the IPv4 servers, but not the critical IPv6 server you desperately need. Based on the following output, what could your problem be?

A. The global address is in the wrong subnet.

B. The IPv6 default gateway has not been configured or received from the router.

C. The link-local address has not been resolved so the host cannot communicate to the router.

D. There are two IPv6 global addresses configured. One must be removed from the configuration.

11. What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution table on a Cisco router?

A. show ip arp

B. show ipv6 arp

C. show ip neighbors

D. show ipv6 neighbors

E. show arp

12. An IPv6 ARP entry is listed as with a status of REACH. What can you conclude about the IPv6-to-MAC-address mapping?

A. The interface has communicated with the neighbor address and the mapping is current.

B. The interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame.

C. The ARP entry has timed out.

D. IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not yet been resolved.

13. Serial0/1 goes down. How will EIGRP send packets to the 10.1.1.0 network?

A. EIGRP will put the 10.1.1.0 network into active mode.

B. EIGRP will drop all packets destined for 10.1.1.0.

C. EIGRP will just keep sending packets out s0/0.

D. EIGRP will use s0/2 as the successor and keep routing to 10.1.1.0.

14. What command produced the following output?

A. show ip protocols

B. show ipv6 protocols

C. show ip eigrp neighbors

D. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

E. show ip eigrp topology

F. show ipv6 eigrp topology

15. You need to troubleshoot an adjacency between two EIGRP configured routers? What should you look for? (Choose four.)

A. Verify the AS numbers.

B. Verify that you have the proper interfaces enabled for EIGRP.

C. Make sure there are no mismatched K-values.

D. Check your passive interface settings.

E. Make sure your remote routers are not connected to the Internet.

F. If authentication is configured, make sure all routers use different passwords.

16. You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose three.)

A. Process ID

B. Hello and dead timers

C. Link cost

D. Area

E. IP address/subnet mask

17. When do two adjacent routers-enter the 2WAY state?

A. After both routers have received Hello information

B. After they have exchanged topology databases

C. When they connect only to a DR or BDR

D. When they need to exchange RID information

18. Which type of LSAs are generated by ABRs and referred to summary link advertisements (SLAs)?

A. Type 1

B. Type 2

C. Type 3

D. Type 4

E. Type 5

19. Which of the following is not provided by the AH portion of IPsec?

A. Integrity

B. Confidentiality

C. Authenticity

D. Anti-reply

20. Which statement about GRE is not true?

A. GRE is stateless and has no flow control.

B. GRE has security.

C. GRE has additional overhead for tunneled packets, at least 24 bytes.

D. GRE uses a protocol-type field in the GRE header so any layer 3 protocol can be used through the tunnel.

21. Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth?

A. Congestion management

B. Shaping

C. Policing

D. Marking

22. IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the following addresses would show up with the show ipv6 int brief command?

A. FF02::3c3d:0d: bdff:fe3b:0d80

B. FE80::3c3d:2d: bdff:fe3b:0d80

C. FE80::3c3d:0d: bdff:fe3b:0d80

D. FE80::3c3d:2d: ffbd:3bfe:0d80

23. A host sends a type of NDP message providing the MAC address that was requested. Which type of NDP was sent?

A. NA

B. RS

C. RA

D. NS

24. Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long?

A. 4

B. 16

C. 32

D. 128

25. To enable OSPFv3, which of the following would you use?

A. Router(config-if)#ipv6 ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0

B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 router rip 1

C. Router(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 10

D. Router(config-rtr)#no shutdown

E. Router(config-if)#ospf ipv6 10 area 0

26. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?

A. Set the Telnet password.

B. Shut down the router.

C. Set your console password.

D. Disable console connections.

27. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.

C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.

D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

E. The network is not subnetted.

28. On which interface do you configure an IP address for a switch?

A. int fa0/0

B. int vty 0 15

C. int vlan 1

D. int s/0/0

29. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?

A. 192.168.168.129–190

B. 192.168.168.129–191

C. 192.168.168.128–190

D. 192.168.168.128–192

30. Which of the following is considered to be the inside host's address after translation?

A. Inside local

B. Outside local

C. Inside global

D. Outside global

31. Your inside locals are not being translated to the inside global addresses. Which of the following commands will show you if your inside globals are allowed to use the NAT pool?

A. debug ip nat

B. show access-list

C. show ip nat translation

D. show ip nat statistics

32. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 12

33. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?

A. line telnet 0 4

B. line aux 0 4

C. line vty 0 4

D. line con 0

34. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?

A. show all access-lists

B. show access-lists

C. show ip interface

D. show interface

35. What does a VLAN do?

A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers

B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port

C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork

D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

36. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, choose the best answer for the Cisco objectives.

A. erase startup

B. delete running

C. erase flash

D. erase running

37. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?

A. TCP

B. ARP

C. ICMP

D. BootP

38. Which class of IP address provides 15 bits for subnetting?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

39. There are three possible routes for a router to reach a destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPv2 with a metric of 4. The third is from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route will be installed by the router in its routing table?

A. RIPv2

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. All three

40. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.

B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.

C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.

D. You need to have a trunk link configured between switches in order to send information about more than one VLAN down the link.

41. Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0? (Choose two.)

A. router eigrp 10

B. router ospf 10

C. router rip

D. network 10.0.0.0

E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0

G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

42. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 12

43. If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface

B. The highest IP address of any physical interface

C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface

D. The highest IP address of any logical interface

44. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)

A. VLAN Trunking Protocol

B. VLAN

C. 802.1q

D. ISL

45. What is a stub network?

A. A network with more than one exit point

B. A network with more than one exit and entry point

C. A network with only one entry and no exit point

D. A network that has only one entry and exit point

46. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A. Session layer

B. Physical layer

C. Data Link layer

D. Application layer

47. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)

A. Standard

B. IEEE

C. Extended

D. Specialized

48. Which of the following is the best summarization of the following networks: 192.168.128.0 through 192.168.159.0?

A. 192.168.0.0/24

B. 192.168.128.0/16

C. 192.168.128.0/19

D. 192.168.128.0/20

49. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A. copy running backup

B. copy running-config startup-config

C. config mem

D. wr net

50. 1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?

A. 802.3f

B. 802.3z

C. 802.3ab

D. 802.3ae

51. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

A. IP

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. ARP

52. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000 bps serial link?

A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64

B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000

C. RouterA(config)#clockrate 64000

D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64

E. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

53. Which command is used to determine if an access list is enabled on a particular interface?

A. show access-lists

B. show interface

C. show ip interface

D. show interface access-lists

54. Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?

A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control information.

B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.

C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information.

D. ISL is a standard.

55. The protocol data unit (PDU) encapsulation is completed in which order?

A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data

B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets

C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits

D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data

56. Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true?

A. This is a multilayer switch.

B. The two VLANs are in the same subnet.

C. Encapsulation must be configured.

D. VLAN 10 is the management VLAN.