Читать книгу Der schnelle Weg zum Flugfunkzeugnis für IFR - Hans Ulrich Kriens - Страница 38

1. Select the correct definition for "estimated time of arrival" in respect to IFR flights.

a) The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that an instrument approach will be commenced

b) The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the designated point defined by reference to visual aids, from which it is intended, that an approach will be commenced

c) The time at which the aircraft will actually arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that a visual approach will be commenced

d) In any case that time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome

2. What does the term "aeronautical station" mean?

a) A station in the aeronautical mobile service located on land or, in certain instances, on board of a ship or on a platform at sea

b) Any station established to exchange radiotelephony communications

c) A station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board of an aircraft to exchange radiotelephony communications

d) A station forming part of the aeronautical telecommunication network

3. What does the term "blind transmission" mean?

a) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations

b) A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations

c) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station

d) A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission

4. What does the term "broadcast" mean?

a) A radiotelephony transmission from a ground station to aircraft in flight

b) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station

c) A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations

d) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations

5. What does the term "air-ground communication" mean?

a) Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth

b) One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth

c) One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth

d) Any communication from aircraft to ground stations requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)

6. What does the term "clearance limit" mean?

a) The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance

b) The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance

c) A point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance

d) The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced

7. What does the term "expected approach time" mean?

a) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing

b) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

c) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated

d) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing

8. What does the term "visual approach" mean?

a) An approach executed by a VFR flight unable to maintain VMC

b) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima

c) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain

d) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitable located for straight-in-approach

9. What does the term "Automatic Terminal Information Service" mean?

a) A service established to provide information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation

b) A service by which aircraft operating within a flight information region (FIR) are provided with current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of air navigation

c) The provision of current routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast throughout the day or a specific portion of the day

d) A service which provides aircraft with weather reports relating to a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR)

10. What does the term "way point" mean?

a) A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system

b) A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation

c) A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system on an international airport

d) A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use

11. What does the abbreviation "INS" mean?

a) Inertial navigation system

b) Instrument navigation system

c) International NOTAM service

d) International navigation service

12. What does the abbreviation "TCAS" mean?

a) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system

b) Terminal control and advisory system

c) Tower cabin alarm stop

d) Track confirmation by automatic sources

13. What is the meaning of the term "flight level"?

a) A pressure level based on regional QNH

b) A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QNH

c) A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QFE

d) A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to 1013,2 hPa

14. What does the abbreviation "SELCAL" mean?

a) A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only

b) A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephony channels linking a ground station with the aircraft

c) A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously

d) A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units

15. What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean?

a) Search and surveillance radar

b) Secondary surveillance radar

c) Surface strength of runway

d) Standard snow report

16. What does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean?

a) Area navigation

b) Radar aided navigation

c) Route navigation

d) Radio navigation

17. What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean?

a) Runway visual range

b) Radar vectors requested

c) Runway visibility report

d) Recleared via route...

18. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?

a) Sunrise to sunset

b) Sunset to sunrise

c) No specific working hours

d) Continuous day and night service

19. QNH is the radio telephony Q-code to indicate:

a) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)

b) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

c) The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP)

d) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome

20. If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code setting would you refer?

a) QNH

b) QFE

c) QDM

d) QBI

21. If you are requested to report your altitude, to which Q-code setting would you refer?

a) QNH

b) QFE

c) QFF

d) QNJ

22. What does QDM mean?

a) Magnetic bearing to the station

b) Magnetic bearing from the station

c) True heading to the station (no wind)

d) True bearing from the station

23. QFE is the radio telephony Q-code to indicate:

a) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome

b) The atmospheric pressure referred to a point on the surface of the earth

c) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

d) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or runway threshold)

24. What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing to the station"?

a) QDM

b) QDR

c) QNE

d) QTE

25. What does QTE mean?

a) Magnetic bearing to the station

b) True bearing from the station

c) True heading to the station (no wind)

d) Magnetic heading to the station

26. What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"?

a) QDR

b) QDM

c) QTE

d) QFE

27. What does QDR mean?

a) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

b) True bearing from the station

c) True heading to the station

d) Magnetic bearing from the station

28. What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"?

a) QDR

b) QTE

c) QDM

d) QFE

29. When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?

a) Local time (LT), 24-hour clock

b) Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.

c) No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required

d) Coordinated universal time (UTC)

30. The time is 4:15pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is a possibility of confusion?

a) Four fifteen P.M.

b) Sixteen fifteen

c) four fifteen in the afternoon

d) One six one five

31. When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:

a) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 ft/GND

b) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 ft/GND

c) Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 ft/GND

d) Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND

32. The time is 9:20 am. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion (same hour)?

a) Two zero

b) Twenty

c) Two zero this hour

d) Nine twenty A.M.

33. The transition level is determined on the basis of ...

a) transition altitude and QNH

b) transition height and QNH

c) transition altitude and QFE

d) transition height and QFE

34. The vertical dimension of the transition layer must be at least:

a) 1000 ft

b) 500 ft

c) 1500 ft

d) 2000 ft

35. The weather report in an ATIS broadcast contains the term "CAVOK". This means that an arriving aircraft has to expect ...

a) less than 5/8 clouds below 5000 ft

b) light precipitation

c) thunderstorm

d) no clouds below 5000 ft GND

36. Which are the units of measurement used in flight operation for wind direction and velocity (except for take-off and landing)?

a) Degrees magnetic and kilometers

b) Degrees true and kilometers

c) Degrees magnetic and miles

d) Degrees true and knots

37. Which are the units of measurement used in flight operation for wind direction and velocity for take-off and landing?

a) Degrees magnetic and knots

b) Degrees true and kilometers

c) Degrees magnetic and miles

d) Degrees true and knots

38. Which time will be issued by ATC, if an arriving aircraft on an IFR flight has to hold over the navigational aid serving as clearance limit, when holding of more than 20 minutes is expected? The ...

a) estimated time of arrival (ETA)

b) estimated elapsed time (EET)

c) estimated time en-route (ETE)

d) expected approach time (EAT)

39. What does "friction coefficient 45" in a runway report mean?

a) Breaking action medium

b) Braking action good

c) Braking action poor

d) Braking action not measurable

40. What does "friction coefficient 20" in a runway report mean?

a) Breaking action medium

b) Breaking action good

c) Breaking action poor

d) Breaking action unreliable

41. The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1005 hPa. What is the transition level?

a) FL 50

b) FL 60

c)FL 70

d) FL 80

42. The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1015 hPa. What is the transition level?

a) FL 50

b) FL 60

c) FL 70

d) FL 80

43. The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 977 hPa. What is the transition level?

a) FL 50

b) FL 80

c) FL 70

d) FL 60

44. An aircraft on an IFR flight at FL 100 approaches an aerodrome for landing. The QNH given is 1018 hPa; the transition altitude is 5000 ft. When shall the pilot change the altimeter setting to QNH? When...

a) leaving FL 100

b) passing FL 50

c) passing FL 70

d) passing FL 60

45. The pilot of an arriving IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from 1013,2 hPa to QNH during the descent...

a) when passing the transition altitude

b) when commencing descent

c) after having passed the transition layer

d) when passing the transition level

46. The pilot of a departing IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from QNH to standard altimeter setting 1013,2 hPa when ...

a) passing transition level

b) reaching transition level

c) passing transition altitude

d) leaving the transition layer