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1. What is the sys-id-ext field in a BPDU used for?

A. This is a 4-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define trunking information between switches.

B. This is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define VLANs in an STP instance.

C. This is a 4-bit field inserted into a non-Ethernet frame to define EtherChannel options.

D. This is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define STP root bridges.

2. You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use?

A. EtherChannel

B. PortFast

C. BPDU Channel

D. VLANs

E. EtherBundle

3. What configuration parameters must be configured the same between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three.)

A. Virtual MAC address

B. Port speeds

C. Duplex

D. PortFast enabled

E. VLAN information

4. Between which two planes are SDN southbound interfaces used?

A. Control

B. Data

C. Routing

D. Application

5. Which option is a layer 2 QoS marking?

A. EXP

B. QoS group

C. DSCP

D. CoS

6. Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth?

A. Congestion management

B. Shaping

C. Policing

D. Marking

7. Which three layers are part of the SDN architecture? (Choose three.)

A. Network

B. Data Link

C. Control

D. Data

E. Transport

F. Application

8. Which of the following is NOT true about APIC-EM ACL analysis?

A. Fast comparison of ACLs between devices to visualize difference and identifymisconfigurations

B. Inspection, interrogation, and analysis of network access control policies

C. Ability to provide layer 4 to layer 7 deep-packet inspection

D. Ability to trace application-specific paths between end devices to quickly identify ACLs and other problem areas.

9. When you're stacking switches, which is true? (Choose two.)

A. The stack is managed as multiple objects and has a single management IP address.

B. The stack is managed as a single object and has a single management IP address.

C. The master switch is chosen when you configure the first switch's master algorithm to on.

D. The master switch is elected from one of the stack member switches.

10. You need to connect to a remote IPv6 server in your virtual server farm. You can connect to the IPv4 servers, but not the critical IPv6 server you desperately need. Based on the output, what could your problem be?

A. The global address is in the wrong subnet.

B. The IPv6 default gateway has not been configured or received from the router.

C. The link-local address has not been resolved so the host cannot communicate to the router.

D. There are two IPv6 global addresses configured. One must be removed from the configuration.

11. What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution table on a Cisco router?

A. show ip arp

B. show ipv6 arp

C. show ip neighbors

D. show ipv6 neighbors

E. show arp

12. An IPv6 ARP entry is listed with a status of REACH. What can you conclude about the IPv6-to-MAC-address mapping?

A. The interface has communicated with the neighbor address and the mapping is current.

B. The interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame.

C. The ARP entry has timed out.

D. IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not yet been resolved.

13. Serial0/1 goes down. How will EIGRP send packets to the 10.1.1.0 network?

A. EIGRP will put the 10.1.1.0 network into active mode.

B. EIGRP will drop all packets destined for 10.1.1.0.

C. EIGRP will just keep sending packets out s0/0.

D. EIGRP will use s0/2 as the successor and keep routing to 10.1.1.0.

14. What command produced the following output?

A. show ip protocols

B. show ipv6 protocols

C. show ip eigrp neighbors

D. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

E. show ip eigrp topology

F. show ipv6 eigrp topology

15. You need to troubleshoot an adjacency between two EIGRP configured routers. What should you look for? (Choose four.)

A. Verify the AS numbers.

B. Verify that you have the proper interfaces enabled for EIGRP.

C. Make sure there are no mismatched K values.

D. Check your passive interface settings.

E. Make sure your remote routers are not connected to the Internet.

F. If authentication is configured, make sure all routers use different passwords.

16. You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose three.)

A. Process ID

B. Hello and dead timers

C. Link cost

D. Area

E. IP address/subnet mask

17. When do two adjacent routers enter the 2WAY state?

A. After both routers have received Hello information

B. After they have exchanged topology databases

C. When they connect only to a DR or BDR

D. When they need to exchange RID information

18. Which type of LSAs are generated by ABRs and referred to as summary link advertisements (SLAs)?

A. Type 1

B. Type 2

C. Type 3

D. Type 4

E. Type 5

19. Which of the following is not provided by the AH portion of IPsec?

A. Integrity

B. Confidentiality

C. Authenticity

D. Anti-replay

20. Which statement about GRE is not true?

A. GRE is stateless and has no flow control.

B. GRE has security.

C. GRE has additional overhead for tunneled packets, at least 24 bytes.

D. GRE uses a protocol-type field in the GRE header so any layer 3 protocol can be used through the tunnel.

21. Which of the following services provides the operating system and the network?

A. IaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. None of the above